I'm quite familiar with Godwin's Law:
Godwin's law, short for Godwin's law (or rule) of Nazi analogies, is an Internet adage asserting that as an online discussion grows longer (regardless of topic or scope), the probability of a comparison involving Nazis or Adolf Hitler approaches
Nazis or Adolf Hitler, not fascism. For example, Musselini was also a fascist, but neither a Nazi nor Adolf Hitler.
I'm quite familiar with Godwin's Law:
Godwin's law, short for Godwin's law (or rule) of Nazi analogies, is an Internet adage asserting that as an online discussion grows longer (regardless of topic or scope), the probability of a comparison involvin Nazis or Adolf Hitler approaches
Nazis or Adolf Hitler, not fascism. For example, Musselini was also a fascist, but neither a Nazi nor Adolf Hitler.
Comparisons to Nazis or Hitler are usually done based on their
application of fascism, are they not?
I would think that calling something an example of Godwin's Law because
it brings up interwar fascism in Europe in general would be more in line with the "intent of the Law" than an example where someone brings up Hitler's moustache or the uniforms that his Nazi officers wore.
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